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[nukkad] Ref:Is it OK ? [by Ninad]---Answer to the question



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Tip of the day:  When spiders unite, they can tie down a lion
- Ethiopian Proverb
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Context: TN succeeds in a business bid from UK which was initially 
mooted to be in favour of Gujarat.
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What is wrong with it? Two states in India bid for a contract from 
UK, and both put in their arguments. UK decides in favour of state 
A. What is wrong here and on whose part? And has damage been 
caused to anybody? [If no damage done, their is probably no crime, 
at least in a layman's sense].

1. Nothing is wrong here on anybody's part. UK has right to choose 
 from whom to buy. Each bidder has right to show case his wares.

2. No damage has been caused to anybody. If foreign exchange flows 
to India, it matters not whether it flows to state A or B.

3. If it is pleaded that damage has been caused to Gujarat by way 
of loss of a potential business opportunity and job vacancies for 
the masses, then, i must say, it is a wrong pleading. We cannot 
have our cake and eat it too. Many high middle class and even 
upper class people, including ladies, often belonging to the 
business class, looted the muslim shops in Gujarat and ferried 
home the loot  in their Cielos. The general masses themselves were 
the rioters, and now they pine that riots caused loss of job 
opportunities to gujarat!Long live hypocricy! Had the contract 
gone to Gujarat, you can bet it would have gone to the same riot 
planners and the same rioters, to the exclusion of Muslims. And 
the former would have touted this as an endorsement of their acts 
by the West!

MC Gupta


















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